Post #12709 by Lapsody on the Berkshire Hathaway board

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But I remain skeptical of Biden's motives. As Tim Scott says, there is nothing the bill that forces him to follow the new law. Why would he do this, because he has no principled interest in reducing immigration, legal or illegal, and he will exploit any opening he has to keep it flowing.

The thing is, no matter how bad Joe abuses the system for another year,

Where does this distorted stilted view come from? If Biden had no principled interest in reducing immigration, legal or illegal, and he will exploit any opening he has to keep it flowing, then why did he keep and enforce Title 42? There was nothing there to force him to follow that law, that wouldn't be in the bill. Why would he attempt to duplicate Title 42 administratively if he had no principled interest? This seems like a contrived view that you know doesn't correspond to reality.

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