Post #14901 by onepoorguy on the US Policy board

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Kinda tricky since the government is a collection of individuals. But I think I see what you were saying based on how you defined your terms. The state has the collective right to organize a militia, and given that, the individuals have the right to bear arms. I think that's a restatement of what I have been saying, and at least partially what Hamilton was saying. But the organized/regulated militia is the key bit. If there is no militia, there is no right of individuals to bear arms. Any given state may allow it anyway, but it isn't a right. The prefatory clause is a conditional. Though McDonald ruled the other way (I think erroneously).

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