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So, the donation must be liquidated in a certain time period, for the donor to get the tax write off? Buffett has stipulated that his 140 billion or so be sold off over a ten-year period by the foundations. How would that work tax wise?
I don’t know all the particulars. I’m just parroting a piece I read in Bloomberg quite a while back. Maybe the rule only applies to things without an immediately liquid / cash equivalent market? Cars and property would fall into that, whereas stocks, bonds, and (obviously) cash would not. Not a tax guy, so the best answer from me is “I don’t know”
