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Sorry to not post on the "OT - Out" political thread (160 posts! Omg), but a On Topic post instead. This one:

How are usually(!) shares treated one bought before immigration?

Concrete example: Say one
- bought in the year 2000 BRK shares
- immigrates in 2025 to a country with 25% capital gains tax on stock investments, e.g. Portugal
- sells those shares 5 years later, in 2030

Is the taxable capital gain then usually(!)

A) Sales Price in 2030 - Buying Price in 2000
B) Sales Price in 2030 - Price at date of immigration in 2025

It can make a gigantic difference, see this situation: My Berkshire shares bought before 1.Jan 2009 are tax exempt in Germany. If moving e.g. to Portugal and there A applies I therefore would need to sell all shares tax-free a few days before immigrating to Portugal and to buy them back after immigration.

> A) Sales Price in 2030 - Buying Price in 2000
> B) Sales Price in 2030 - Price at date of immigration in 2025

Said,

For Portugal, the answer is A. You don't get a step-up basis
just because you immigrated here.

If you decide to sell your shares tax-free in Germany before
moving here, you may want to check with a Portuguese tax advisor
before buying them back again (if that's what you intend to do),
as there are some potential plans that you can use to lower your
tax bill -- if you structure things correctly before you move here.

-Rubic

if you are a us citizen you will pay tax on sale wherever you are. proceeds will be smoothed out under double taxation treaty, unless you find a smart shelter somewhere else...

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